Influence
Posted: Sat Mar 26, 2011 5:43 am
When I am reading rules and reading forum posts, everything seems to make sense...until I start playing. I am in Korea and there is no one here, that I know of, so I have my Korean girlfriend learning/playing. Sometimes she asks me questions that make me confused...before she asks, I think I know the correct way, but then she starts me questioning myself (all women have this skill, hahahaha) So while I thought I understood INFLUENCE, I am not so sure anymore...DIRECT INFLUENCE mainly.
I think general influence is pretty simple, that is MY personal influence (20) and I can NOT use that to influence factions, etc...ONLY to control characters and my UNUSED general influence makes a difference sometimes with cards like "Call of Home", etc.
I can ONLY use DIRECT influence of one of my characters to influence factions and when my wizard CARD is in play, say Gandalf, with a 10 DIRECT influence, I can use that 10 to influence factions but not the 20 general influence I have.
if any of that is incorrect, please let me know...
BUT, what I was unsure about is:
If my card, Thranduil, Says "3 Direct Influence (in the black hand)" and in the text "+2 direct influence against the wood-elves faction"...I can use both together, the 3 and the +2 to influence the wood-elves faction, RIGHT? I think so because it says "+2"...not just "2". So against the wood-elves faction I would have a "5" and only a "3" against all other factions.
Also, the same would apply for the faction "Hobbits". If I have Lobelia in play trying to influence the "Hobbits", she would get a total of +8...right? She has a direct influence of 1 (black hand), +3 in her text against hobbits and the "hobbits" faction and then the hobbits faction gives a standard +4 modification for all hobbits.
I think general influence is pretty simple, that is MY personal influence (20) and I can NOT use that to influence factions, etc...ONLY to control characters and my UNUSED general influence makes a difference sometimes with cards like "Call of Home", etc.
I can ONLY use DIRECT influence of one of my characters to influence factions and when my wizard CARD is in play, say Gandalf, with a 10 DIRECT influence, I can use that 10 to influence factions but not the 20 general influence I have.
if any of that is incorrect, please let me know...
BUT, what I was unsure about is:
If my card, Thranduil, Says "3 Direct Influence (in the black hand)" and in the text "+2 direct influence against the wood-elves faction"...I can use both together, the 3 and the +2 to influence the wood-elves faction, RIGHT? I think so because it says "+2"...not just "2". So against the wood-elves faction I would have a "5" and only a "3" against all other factions.
Also, the same would apply for the faction "Hobbits". If I have Lobelia in play trying to influence the "Hobbits", she would get a total of +8...right? She has a direct influence of 1 (black hand), +3 in her text against hobbits and the "hobbits" faction and then the hobbits faction gives a standard +4 modification for all hobbits.